Preimage of a subgroup

Suppose ϕ:G→G′ is a surjective homomorphism, H≤G is a subgroup containing ker⁡(ϕ), and H′=ϕ(H). Prove ϕ−1(H′)=H, where ϕ−1(H′)={g∈G∣ϕ(g)∈H′}. Make sure to state explicitly where each hypothesis is used.